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jsp:useBean question

Steven Colley
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Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
for instance, if we have this:

<jsp:useBean nameBean="X" class="Y" />

is it supposed to be a compile OR runtime error?

Tks.


SCJP | SCWCD | SCBCD | SCWSD 5 | SCEA (I) 1.4 | SCEA 5 | IBM SOA 669
Roy Simon
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Joined: Aug 26, 2005
Posts: 62
hi,
this looks like a syntax error and hence i think it should be a compile time error. Please correct me if i am wrong
Regards
Simon
Steven Colley
Ranch Hand

Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
Hi Roy,

Actually it�s a "translation time error" i gues!

The container gets this error at translation phase, and the ".class(servlet)" is not generate.

Please folks, does this sentence make sense?

" **Every request-time** expression has a **translation time error** regarding sintax errors???**"


Tks.
Steven Colley
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Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
please...anyone?
Rodrigo Alvarez
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Joined: Apr 10, 2006
Posts: 75
Hi,

I guess if there are not at least a class and a id parameter in the <jsp:usebean >, the container is not able to translate the tag into the Servlet code that declares and possibly defines the corresponding javabean: they are the required info defining the class and name of the object => translation error sounds logical in that case.

do you also get an error when you specify id, class and an illegal stuff like beanName ?

(yeah, I could try it myself, but it's midnight here...)


Cheers,


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Narendra Dhande
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Joined: Dec 04, 2004
Posts: 950
Hi,

It is translation time error. The container validates all action elements at the translation time for the required attributes and syntax.

Thanks


Narendra Dhande
SCJP 1.4,SCWCD 1.4, SCBCD 5.0, SCDJWS 5.0, SCEA 5.0
 
 
subject: jsp:useBean question