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jsp:useBean question
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Steven Colley
Ranch Hand
Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
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for instance, if we have this: <jsp:useBean nameBean="X" class="Y" /> is it supposed to be a compile OR runtime error? Tks.
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SCJP | SCWCD | SCBCD | SCWSD 5 | SCEA (I) 1.4 | SCEA 5 | IBM SOA 669
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Roy Simon
Ranch Hand
Joined: Aug 26, 2005
Posts: 62
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hi, this looks like a syntax error and hence i think it should be a compile time error. Please correct me if i am wrong Regards Simon
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Steven Colley
Ranch Hand
Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
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Hi Roy, Actually it�s a "translation time error" i gues! The container gets this error at translation phase, and the ".class(servlet)" is not generate. Please folks, does this sentence make sense? " **Every request-time** expression has a **translation time error** regarding sintax errors???**" Tks.
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Steven Colley
Ranch Hand
Joined: Feb 18, 2005
Posts: 290
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please...anyone?
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Rodrigo Alvarez
Ranch Hand
Joined: Apr 10, 2006
Posts: 75
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Hi, I guess if there are not at least a class and a id parameter in the <jsp:usebean >, the container is not able to translate the tag into the Servlet code that declares and possibly defines the corresponding javabean: they are the required info defining the class and name of the object => translation error sounds logical in that case. do you also get an error when you specify id, class and an illegal stuff like beanName ? (yeah, I could try it myself, but it's midnight here...) Cheers,
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Narendra Dhande
Ranch Hand
Joined: Dec 04, 2004
Posts: 950
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Hi, It is translation time error. The container validates all action elements at the translation time for the required attributes and syntax. Thanks
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Narendra Dhande
SCJP 1.4,SCWCD 1.4, SCBCD 5.0, SCDJWS 5.0, SCEA 5.0
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subject: jsp:useBean question
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