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For bean managed transaction, if there is no distributed transactions envoled and my database operations are in a single method with single phase transaction, the effect of using JTA/JTS and the effect of using JDBC level transaction (Connection.setAutoCommit(false)) are the same. Am I right? By the way, has anybody seen "enlist transaction error ..." on WebSphere with Oracle 8i XADataSource? Thanks in adance ...
SCJP, SCJD, SCWCD, SCBCD, SCEA, IBM Certified Enterprise Developer, WebSphere Studio V5.0
There are several differences that could influence your design. One of the differences between JTA and JDBC is that JTA doesn't support nested transactions, while JDBC might do. Another difference is related to SFSB: in both cases the transactional context is retained during multiple client calls. If the connection is closed, JDBC will lose the association between the bean and transactional context; it won�t get lost with JTA though.