If I have an mbean defined in application 1 and then use the mbean server in application 2 to invoke a method on the mbean, which class loader will the invocation happen in? app 2's classloader or app 1's classloader?
Valentin Tanase
Ranch Hand
Joined: Feb 17, 2005
Posts: 704
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Hi Harry,
Clients cannot invoke methods on MDBs (this is why MDBs don�t have remote or home interfaces). They are strict server side components that act like asynchronous JMS listeners. Only the container calls the onMessage() if a message was added to the associate JMS destination. Clients interact with the MDB indirectly, sending JMS messages to the JMS destination.
I think, therefore I exist -- Rene Descartes
harry hita
Greenhorn
Joined: Jan 05, 2005
Posts: 14
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Thanks for the reply Valentin, but I was referring to mbeans (as in jmx managed objects) not message driven beans.
Originally posted by Valentin Tanase: Hi Harry,
Clients cannot invoke methods on MDBs (this is why MDBs don�t have remote or home interfaces). They are strict server side components that act like asynchronous JMS listeners. Only the container calls the onMessage() if a message was added to the associate JMS destination. Clients interact with the MDB indirectly, sending JMS messages to the JMS destination.
I agree. Here's the link: http://ej-technologies/jprofiler - if it wasn't for jprofiler, we would need to
run our stuff on 16 servers instead of 3.
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