Hi,
<html>
<body>
<
jsp:useBean id="address" class "AddressBean" />
<jsp:setProperty name="address" property="*" />
<jsp:include page="that.jsp" />
</body>
</html>
In this code, would "that.jsp" be able to access the bean "address" by jsp:getProperty without using useBean declaration?
This is a question from SCWCD kit and they say, if the scope was anything other than page, then that.jsp can access the bean "address" by declaring it using useBean and then by getProperty. But I run the code and see that even without useBean, that.jsp could access the "address" bean in this.jsp, when the scope is anything other than page.
So what should I conclude? I need your valuable opinion.
Thanks.
[ September 07, 2004: Message edited by: S Subramonyan ]
