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Why this does not fail?

 
Ranch Hand
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hi folks,

i thought the program would fail compiling as we can not invoke run()method directly. but it works fine. WHY?
I would appreciate if someone explains me.
thanks.
[ July 29, 2003: Message edited by: Namaste Sathi ]
 
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There's nothing preventing you from calling run: it is delared as public. The Thread class's run method does nothing (unless it was created with a Runnable object); but in your subclass here, it does do something.
 
Brian Smith
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Joel,
so it's not necessary true that we can't invoke run() method of a Thread directly. And also, we can't predict when the run()method gets excuted once the start() is invoked. right?
 
mister krabs
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If you invoke the run() method then it is not running as a separate thread. run() is no different than any other method when invoked that way.
 
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